47 year-old man, Caucasian
Presents in 2023 with an idiopathic hypertensive, granulomatous anterior uveitis of the left eye only.
There is an incomplete response to first local and later systemic immunosuppressive therapy.
A recent MRI now reveals a hyperintense left optic nerve.
Antibodies against NMO and MOG, as well as cervical MRI are negative.
Currently, he still has a visual acuity of 1.0 and continues to have a chronic, low-grade unilateral anterior uveitis.
No apparent RAPD, nor pain on eye movement.
I asked for MRI with contrast, but got one without.
The neurologist says he finds no arguments for a neuroinflammatory disorder and lumbar puncture was not deemed necessary.
Would you agree with that or what do you think this could be? Neurosarcoidosis, SLE, GPA, ... ?
Thank you,
Michel
PS. The arrow in the second image was put there by radiology. I suppose that tells how they think of me :)
I am not convinced the prechiasmatic part of the right optic nerve looks normal.